"Kop kardam" means I was so shocked I almost had a heartattack. What is the origin of the word "kop". Answer: It comes from "SYNCOPE", a Greek word meaning fainting or the temporary loss of consciousness.
Winner: Golesang. 100 Afarin!
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It CAN'T come...
by Rosie T. on Tue Nov 20, 2007 12:01 AM PSTfrom the Greek. The Aryan tribes left the Central Asian steppe around 2500 BC. They split. Some went to Europe (eg,. the Greeks) and others to South Asia--Iran and India. As you all know. The Indo-Iranian group also split later on, but they are MUCH more closely related to each other than to the Greeks. Sanskrit and Avestan are VERY close. As you also all know.
So when I submitted "kop" as being RELATED to "kopa" (a blow) and "kopana" (very excited or upset) in Sanskrit and thus SHOWING that it's an old Aryan root and not a borrowing I was more accurate than the above. You see IT DOESN'T COME FROM GREEK. Its existence in Greek PROVES that it's an old Aryan word, as does its existence in Sanskrit, only the Sanskrit is the closer proof.
.Not to DIMINISH Golesang's contribution whatsoever, it's really interesting to realize that the root also exists in the Greek. BUT...I'm going to give MYSELF a whole BUBBLE BATH. Of AFARINES tonight.....because....l can...
Robin